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221. The Fast Track Immigration Trusted Traveller Program (FTI-TTP) was first launched at which airport in 2024?
[A] Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel International Airport, Ahmedabad
[B] Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru
[C] Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi
[D] Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, Mumbai
Correct Answer: C [Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi]
Notes:
The Fast Track Immigration Trusted Traveller Program (FTI-TTP) was inaugurated on June 22, 2024, at Indira Gandhi International Airport in New Delhi. This initiative is designed to improve immigration procedures within India. Launched by Union Home Minister Amit Shah, the program seeks to facilitate smooth and secure international travel for qualified individuals. Following its debut in New Delhi, the initiative is set to extend to seven other prominent airports throughout the country. The FTI-TTP bears resemblance to the Global Entry Program in the United States, which offers expedited processing for pre-approved travelers. The Bureau of Immigration acts as the primary agency overseeing the FTI-TTP. The program was officially launched at the airports in Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Cochin, and Ahmedabad on January 16, 2025, with plans for implementation at a total of 21 major airports across the nation.
222. The Supreme Court of India is poised to make a landmark decision regarding the interpretation of which act?
[A] Special Marriage Act, 1954
[B] Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
[C] Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988
[D] Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Correct Answer: C [Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988]
Notes:
The Supreme Court of India is set to render a significant ruling concerning the interpretation of the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 (PCA). This case has the potential to transform the legal framework governing corruption allegations that occurred before 2018. The court will consider whether the act of merely proposing a bribe constitutes an offense under the PCA, regardless of whether the public official accepts or rejects the offer. The hearing is slated for January 21, 2025.
223. Which of the following ministry has recently amended prison manual rules to eliminate caste discrimination among inmates?
[A] Ministry of Home
[B] Ministry of Defence
[C] Ministry of Law & Justice
[D] Ministry of Current Affairs
Correct Answer: A [Ministry of Home]
Notes:
The Union Home Ministry of India has recently revised the regulations governing prison operations to eradicate caste discrimination among inmates. This action is in response to a Supreme Court ruling delivered on October 3, 2024, which highlighted issues related to caste-based discrimination within correctional facilities. The modifications are intended to guarantee that all prisoners receive equal treatment, irrespective of their caste, and to prevent any form of segregation based on this characteristic. The ‘Model Prisons and Correctional Services Act, 2023’ has undergone revisions to incorporate a new provision, designated as Section 55(A), which addresses the ‘Prohibition of caste-based discrimination in Prisons and Correctional Institutions.’ This addition underscores the dedication to eliminating caste discrimination within the prison system and guarantees that all inmates are afforded equal rights and opportunities.
224. Which ministry has recently released the draft rules for the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP)?
[A] Ministry of Home
[B] Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
[C] Ministry of Law & Justice
[D] Ministry of Current Affairs
Correct Answer: B [Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology]
Notes:
On January 3, 2024, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) published the draft rules for the Digital Personal Data Protection Act (DPDP). This comes after the Act was approved by Parliament in August 2023. The government has set up a feedback period on the MyGov portal, where stakeholders can share their views until February 18, 2025. There is a lot of excitement about these rules, as they are expected to explain different aspects of the law. The draft rules aim to clarify key issues. They discuss the responsibilities of data fiduciaries, the function of consent managers, and how to manage children’s personal data. They also describe the creation of the Data Protection Board, which will monitor compliance and deal with violations.
225. Which state has a declining birth sex ratio in 2024 reported?
[A] Bihar
[B] Uttarakhand
[C] Haryana
[D] Rajasthan
Correct Answer: C [Haryana]
Notes:
In 2024, Haryana saw a worrying decline in its sex ratio at birth, hitting an eight-year low of 910 girls for every 1,000 boys. This statistic has raised concerns among activists and community members, even though government officials consider it a small change. The sex ratio is an important measure of gender equality and shows the condition of women in society. Across India, the national sex ratio at birth was noted at 929 in the National Health and Family Survey-5 (NFHS-5) released in 2021.
226. Whose order is required before police can take action for non-cognizable offences?
[A] DC
[B] Magistrate
[C] CM
[D] DGP
Correct Answer: B [Magistrate]
Notes:
In January 2025, the Supreme Court provided clarification regarding the scope of police investigations pertaining to both serious and non-serious crimes. The Court made a clear distinction between cognizable and non-cognizable offences, highlighting the necessity of protective measures for non-cognizable offences. This decision stemmed from a case that involved allegations against an appellant under particular provisions of the Indian Penal Code (IPC). In the context of cognizable offences, law enforcement is permitted to commence investigations without obtaining prior consent. Conversely, non-cognizable offences necessitate a magistrate’s directive before police intervention can occur. This differentiation is essential for preserving the equilibrium between individual liberties and governmental power.
227. The Supreme Court of India recently transferred all petitions related to anti-competitive practices by e-commerce giants to which High Court?
[A] Karnataka High Court
[B] Madras High Court
[C] Allahabad High Court
[D] Bombay High Court
Correct Answer: A [Karnataka High Court]
Notes:
The legal dispute between e-commerce leaders Amazon and Flipkart has intensified. Recently, the Supreme Court of India has moved all petitions concerning purported anti-competitive behaviors of these firms to the Karnataka High Court. This action comes after an extensive inquiry launched by the Competition Commission of India (CCI), prompted by grievances from small-scale traders. The situation has brought to light significant concerns regarding the operational methods of prominent online marketplaces and their effects on market competition.
228. Recently, the national anthem controversy was seen in the news in which state assembly?
[A] Kerala
[B] Karnataka
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Manipur
Correct Answer: C [Tamil Nadu]
Notes:
On January 6, 2025, R.N. Ravi, the Governor of Tamil Nadu, exited the Legislative Assembly without presenting his traditional address. His exit was prompted by the lack of the national anthem prior to his planned speech. This occurrence mirrors a comparable incident from the preceding year, prompting inquiries regarding adherence to protocol and the reverence afforded to national symbols.
229. Which of the following has introduced new rules for the selection process of Vice-Chancellors?
[A] UGC
[B] CBSC
[C] NAAC
[D] None of the above
Correct Answer: A [UGC]
Notes:
The University Grants Commission (UGC) has unveiled new guidelines concerning the appointment and promotion of educators within higher education institutions. Announced on January 6, 2025, by Union Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan, these draft regulations elucidate the selection procedure for Vice-Chancellors. The guidelines authorize Chancellors or Visitors to establish a three-member search-cum-selection committee tasked with the appointment of Vice-Chancellors. Institutions that do not adhere to these guidelines may encounter repercussions, such as being barred from UGC initiatives and degree offerings. Stakeholders are invited to submit their feedback on the draft within a 30-day period.
230. IPC has recently raised concerns about adverse drug reactions (ADRs) linked to which drug?
[A] ACE inhibitors
[B] Vasodilators
[C] ARB + neprilysin inhibitor
[D] Beta Blocker
Correct Answer: D [Beta Blocker]
Notes:
The Indian Pharmacopoeia Commission (IPC) has recently expressed apprehensions about adverse drug reactions (ADRs) associated with commonly prescribed beta blocker medications. These include metoprolol, propranolol, and atenolol, which are frequently utilized in the treatment of cardiovascular disorders. The IPC’s findings underscore the necessity of vigilant monitoring of these drugs, given their potential to cause serious side effects, including hypokalaemia, which may pose significant health risks.
