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1. The Government of India has launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in which year?
[A] 2025
[B] 2024
[C] 2023
[D] 2022
Correct Answer: A [2025]
Notes:
In 2025, India initiated the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) to achieve its clean energy goals and lessen reliance on imports. This program aims to ensure a steady supply of essential minerals required for green technologies such as solar energy, electric vehicles (EVs), and battery storage systems. India’s aspirations for green energy are closely tied to the availability of these critical minerals, which are vital for technologies like solar panels, wind turbines, and EVs. The NCMM, led by the Geological Survey of India (GSI) and managed by the Ministry of Mines, focuses on reducing import reliance, boosting domestic production, and improving global competitiveness through targeted exploration, processing, and recycling of these important minerals.
2. Recently, which country officially revoked the transshipment facility that allowed Bangladeshi exporters?
[A] Russia
[B] India
[C] France
[D] China
Correct Answer: B [India]
Notes:
India has recently canceled the transshipment facility that permitted Bangladeshi exporters to move goods through Indian territory to other countries. This change will impact trade logistics and costs, especially for Bangladesh’s exports to Western markets. The decision comes amid increasing tensions between India and Bangladesh, fueled by recent comments from Bangladeshi officials about China’s economic role in Northeast India. The transshipment facility was introduced in June 2020 to allow Bangladeshi products to pass through Indian Land Customs Stations (LCSs) to access ports and airports, aiming to boost trade cooperation and regional connectivity. It enabled Bangladeshi exporters to reach global markets using India’s logistical resources. India has cited logistical issues as the primary reason for ending the agreement, with the Ministry of External Affairs noting congestion at Indian airports and ports. This congestion has caused delays and higher costs for Indian exporters, creating backlogs that affect India’s own export activities. The cancellation took effect on April 8, 2025, and is likely to disrupt Bangladesh’s trade logistics. Exporters may encounter increased transportation costs and delays, particularly for shipments to European and West Asian markets. This situation may also prompt Bangladeshi exporters to reassess their trade routes and partnerships.
3. According to the Asian Development Outlook (ADO) April 2025, the Indian GDP is projected to grow by __ percent in FY2025.
[A] 5.5%
[B] 6.0%
[C] 6.3%
[D] 6.7%
Correct Answer: D [6.7%]
Notes:
India’s economy is showing strong growth despite global challenges. The Asian Development Outlook (ADO) for April 2025 predicts that India’s GDP will increase by 6.7% in FY2025, fueled by stronger domestic demand, rising incomes in rural areas, and easing inflation. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) anticipates this growth trend will carry on into FY2026, with a projected GDP growth of 6.8%, backed by supportive fiscal and monetary policies. However, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has slightly lowered its forecast to 6.5%, pointing to difficulties in global trade and uncertainties in policy.
4. Recently, which authority has launched a digital portal to facilitate private investment in the development of jetties and terminals on National Waterways?
[A] Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation
[B] Department of Animal Husbandry and Dairying
[C] Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
[D] Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
Correct Answer: D [Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)]
Notes:
The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) has recently introduced a digital portal aimed at attracting private investment for the development of jetties and terminals along National Waterways. This initiative is designed to improve the Ease of Doing Business (EODB) and foster the growth of inland water transport (IWT) throughout India. The portal’s launch coincides with the implementation of the National Waterways (Construction of Jetties/Terminals) Regulations, 2025, which establishes a framework for private companies to participate in terminal operations. Through this digital platform, private investors can easily apply for a No Objection Certificate (NoC) necessary for building or managing terminals. This initiative simplifies the application process, making it more user-friendly for private stakeholders. The system aims to streamline regulatory steps and create a supportive environment for infrastructure development. The new regulations permit any organization, including private firms, to develop or manage terminals on National Waterways, covering both existing and new facilities, as well as permanent and temporary structures. Permanent terminals can operate indefinitely, while temporary ones are initially allowed to function for five years, with the possibility of extension.
5. The Vembur sheep, known locally as ‘Pottu aadu,’ is a unique indigenous breed found in which state?
[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] Telangana
[C] Tamil Nadu
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: C [Tamil Nadu]
Notes:
The Vembur sheep, locally referred to as ‘Pottu aadu’, is a distinctive indigenous breed native to Tamil Nadu. This breed is notable for its unique coat, which consists of white fur adorned with reddish-brown patches. It is vital to the livelihoods of local farmers, especially in the Thoothukudi and Virudhunagar districts. However, the proposed SIPCOT industrial project poses a threat to its survival by encroaching on essential grazing areas. Vembur sheep are medium-sized, characterized by drooping ears and slender bodies. Their unique coat patterns differentiate them from other Indian breeds. As hair sheep, they do not require shearing and are well-suited to the local climate. They thrive on natural grazing, consuming native grasses without needing commercial feed. For generations, Vembur sheep have been crucial to the local economy, providing farmers with a source of income that enhances their economic stability and educational opportunities. The market value of Vembur sheep has risen, with a pair fetching between ₹18,000 and ₹20,000. This breed also plays a significant role in preserving the cultural identity of the region.
6. Which state government has decided to rename the historic town of Khultabad to its earlier name, Ratnapur?
[A] Odisha
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Telangana
Correct Answer: B [Maharashtra]
Notes:
In a notable effort to revive pre-Mughal heritage and identity, the Maharashtra government has decided to rename the historic town of Khultabad back to its original name, Ratnapur. This announcement was made on April 8, 2025, by the State’s Social Justice Minister Sanjay Shirsat. This move is part of the ongoing initiative by the BJP-Shiv Sena alliance to restore the original cultural and historical names of locations that were changed during the Mughal era. Khultabad, situated in the Chhatrapati Sambhaji Nagar district, is recognized not only for its natural beauty and spiritual importance but also for being the site of Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s tomb, as well as the graves of his son Azam Shah and Asaf Jah I, the founder of the Hyderabad Nizam dynasty.
7. Which state police investigation portal has won the SKOCH Award for Excellence in Police & Safety?
[A] Gujarat
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Uttar Pradesh
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: C [Uttar Pradesh]
Notes:
The Uttar Pradesh Police’s digital project, the Investigation, Prosecution and Conviction Portal, has been awarded the esteemed SKOCH Award in the “Police & Safety” category, highlighting its significant impact on the justice system. This recognition, announced on April 9, 2025, acknowledges the UP Police’s commitment to modernizing and improving the investigation process through digital means. Created by the police department’s Technical Services Unit, the portal is essential for monitoring serious crimes, speeding up investigations, ensuring timely submission of chargesheets, and improving the efficiency of court trials. This initiative not only hastens the delivery of justice but also helps restore public trust in law enforcement.
8. President Droupadi Murmu received an Honorary Doctorate from Constantine The Philosopher University, located in which country?
[A] Portugal
[B] Slovakia
[C] Brazil
[D] Greek
Correct Answer: B [Slovakia]
Notes:
During her official visit to Slovakia and Portugal, President Droupadi Murmu was awarded an honorary doctorate by Constantine The Philosopher University in Nitra. This honor recognizes her outstanding contributions to public service, her commitment to justice, and her support for inclusive governance. The award was presented on the last day of her four-day trip, highlighting her dedication to social justice, education, women’s empowerment, and cultural preservation. This recognition reflects the increasing respect for India’s global leadership and Murmu’s significant role in promoting democratic values and inclusive governance.
9. Which country has recently passed the SAVE Act?
[A] United Kingdom
[B] United States
[C] India
[D] China
Correct Answer: B [United States]
Notes:
Recently, the U.S. House of Representatives approved the SAVE Act, which requires proof of U.S. citizenship for voter registration. Supported by Republicans, the act aims to stop noncitizens from voting. However, voting rights organizations argue that this could disenfranchise millions of eligible voters. The legislation has ignited discussions about voting rights and accessibility. The SAVE Act, officially known as the Safeguard American Voter Eligibility Act, was proposed to tackle concerns regarding noncitizen voting. Proponents argue that it is essential for maintaining election integrity. Currently, federal law already prohibits noncitizens from voting, with strict penalties for those who violate this rule. Cases of noncitizen voting are uncommon and typically accidental. If the SAVE Act is implemented, all new voter registration applications will need to provide proof of citizenship. This requirement will also impact individuals updating their registration due to name changes or moving. Existing voters will remain unaffected unless they change their registration information.
10. Who released the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023-24?
[A] Reserve Bank of India
[B] National Statistical Office (NSO)
[C] Ministry of Finance
[D] Ministry of Industry and Commerce
Correct Answer: B [National Statistical Office (NSO)]
Notes:
The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2023-24 was released by the National Statistical Office (NSO). The NSO, a unit within the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), is responsible for conducting and publishing the PLFS. The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) plays a crucial role in analyzing the employment situation in India. It offers insights into important labor force metrics, including the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), Worker Population Ratio (WPR), and Unemployment Rate (UR). The most recent PLFS report, which spans from July 2023 to June 2024, highlights ongoing employment trends in both urban and rural regions. In urban areas, the LFPR for men increased from 74.3% in 2023 to 75.6% in 2024, while female participation saw a slight rise from 25.5% to 25.8%. Nationally, the LFPR grew from 50.3% to 51.0%. Despite these urban improvements, the overall LFPR held steady at 56.2%. The WPR showed minor gains across all demographics, with urban areas seeing an increase from 47.0% to 47.6%. However, the national WPR remained largely unchanged, moving from 53.4% to 53.5%, suggesting a stable job market, particularly in urban areas. In rural regions, the unemployment rate slightly decreased from 4.3% to 4.2%, affecting both male and female unemployment rates. In contrast, urban male unemployment edged up from 6.0% to 6.1%, while female unemployment fell from 8.9% to 8.2%. The overall urban unemployment rate stayed constant at 6.7%. At the national level, unemployment dipped slightly from 5.0% to 4.9%, indicating a small improvement in job opportunities.
11. Which organization recently released the State of Social Protection Report 2025?
[A] United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
[B] World Health Organization (WHO)
[C] World Economic Forum (WEF)
[D] World Bank
Correct Answer: D [World Bank]
Notes:
The World Bank recently published the State of Social Protection Report 2025, highlighting that 1.6 billion people do not receive any social protection. By 2025, almost two billion individuals in low- and middle-income nations will lack sufficient social support. The report stresses the critical need for reforms to fill these gaps and enhance the lives of the impoverished. It notes that over 80% of people in low-income countries (LICs) do not have access to social protection, while more than 30% in lower-middle-income countries (LMICs) are inadequately covered. The situation is particularly severe in sub-Saharan Africa, where over 70% of the population lacks any form of social protection. The extent of social protection is closely tied to a country’s economic status, with LICs experiencing the largest deficiencies—nearly 80% of individuals receive no assistance. In contrast, upper-middle-income countries have better coverage, with only 11% completely excluded. However, the total number of unprotected individuals is higher in middle-income countries due to their larger populations.
12. Which state has the most Front Runner Gram Panchayats, as per the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI)?
[A] Telangana
[B] Andhra Pradesh
[C] Gujarat
[D] Karnataka
Correct Answer: C [Gujarat]
Notes:
In a significant move to assess and promote local governance, the Ministry of Panchayati Raj has released the inaugural baseline report for the Panchayat Advancement Index (PAI) for the fiscal year 2022–23. This index offers a data-driven approach to evaluate the performance of more than 250,000 Gram Panchayats (GPs) across nine themes related to Localized Sustainable Development Goals (LSDGs). This innovative initiative aims to foster evidence-based planning and improve accountability in development at the Panchayat level. Gujarat and Telangana are leading the way with the most “Front Runner” Panchayats, indicating strong rural governance and advancement. The PAI measures the development of over 250,000 GPs based on themes such as poverty alleviation, health, child welfare, water availability, environmental cleanliness, women’s empowerment, and effective governance. Gujarat has 346 Front Runner GPs, while Telangana has 270. The PAI for 2022–23 identifies 699 GPs as Front Runners, 77,298 as Performers, 132,392 as Aspirants, and 5,896 at the Beginner level. The index utilizes 435 indicators that align with the National Indicator Framework (NIF) established by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
13. The second edition of the STREE Summit 2025 on Women’s Safety and Empowerment will be held in which city?
[A] New Delhi
[B] Bengaluru
[C] Chennai
[D] Hyderabad
Correct Answer: D [Hyderabad]
Notes:
The Hyderabad City Security Council (HCSC) will host the second STREE Summit on April 15, 2025. This significant event aims to empower women by tackling their safety and security issues. The summit will gather various stakeholders, including professionals, advocates, and experts, to discuss the challenges women encounter in society. It is intended to create a platform for collaborative learning and to develop practical solutions that enhance women’s safety and promote gender equality. Supported by HCSC Chairperson and Hyderabad Police Commissioner C.V. Anand, the event will facilitate the sharing of effective strategies and experiences.
14. Which nation will host the 2035 FIFA Women’s World Cup?
[A] United Kingdom
[B] United States
[C] France
[D] Italy
Correct Answer: A [United Kingdom]
Notes:
The United Kingdom is set to host the 2035 FIFA Women’s World Cup, having been recognized as the sole official bidder for the tournament, as stated by FIFA President Gianni Infantino. The bid was a joint effort from the four home nations: England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. This will mark the first time the tournament returns to Europe since the 2023 edition, following successful events such as the UEFA Women’s Euro 2022. This significant opportunity reflects the increasing popularity of women’s football in the area.
15. When is World Parkinson’s Day celebrated every year?
[A] April 11
[B] April 9
[C] April 10
[D] April 12
Correct Answer: A [April 11]
Notes:
Every year on April 11, World Parkinson’s Day is recognized worldwide to raise awareness about Parkinson’s Disease, a progressive neurodegenerative condition that impacts millions. This initiative was launched in 1997 by the European Association for Parkinson’s Disease to honor Dr. James Parkinson, who first identified the disease in 1817. As we celebrate World Parkinson’s Day 2025, the emphasis is on informing the public about the symptoms, stages, treatment options, and the significance of early diagnosis and lifestyle management. The red tulip, a central symbol of this day, signifies hope, unity, and strength within the global Parkinson’s community.
16. National Safe Motherhood Day is observed annually on which year?
[A] April 9
[B] April 10
[C] April 11
[D] April 12
Correct Answer: C [April 11]
Notes:
National Safe Motherhood Day is celebrated annually on April 11 in India, highlighting the essential need for safe, respectful, and accessible maternal healthcare for all women. This day coincides with the birth anniversary of Kasturba Gandhi. It serves as an important national initiative to promote awareness about maternal health. The observance emphasizes the necessity of providing adequate and respectful care to every pregnant and breastfeeding woman. Although there have been advancements in lowering maternal mortality rates, many women, particularly in rural, tribal, and marginalized areas, still face challenges in accessing timely and quality care. Therefore, this day is vital for advocacy, policy development, and community involvement.
